MANIPAL Previous PG Question Paper

 

1. Which of the following is the remnant of the transverse obliterated ligament
1. Flexor pollicis longus
2. Flexor carpi ulnaris
3. Flexor carpi radialis
4. Flexor digitorum sublimes
2. The failure of degeneration of the the part of aorta from the 4^th arch to the segmental artery is
1. Double arch of aorta
2. Patent ductus arteriosus
3. Coarctation of aorta
4. Hypoplastic aorta
3. Bunion is
1. Exostosis of the base of the 1^st metatarsal bone
2. Bursa at the base of the metatarsal bone
3. Inflamed adventitial bursa at the base of the 1^st metatarsal bone
4. Exostosis at the head of the 1^st metatarsal bone
4. Unexpectedly increase in diffusing capacity is found in
1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Pulmonary heamorrage
3. Bronchitis
4. Bronchiectasis
5. The adenylate cyclase is found is associated with
1. cAMP
2. Phosphodiesterase
3. GTP regulating proteins
4. Nuclear receptors
6. AMP activates which of the following
1. Phosphofructokinase I
2. Pyruvate kinase
3. Phosphoglucomutase
4. Hexokinase
7. Packed cells are formed by
1. Filtration
2. Centrifugation
3. Precipitation
4. Sedimentation
8. The sequence in respiratory chain in the mitochondria is
1. c-c1-b-a-a3
2. c1-c-b-b1-a3-a
3. b-c1-c-a3-a
4. a-a3-b-c-c1
9. The riders bone is due to calcification of which of the following bones
1. Adductor longus
2. Adductor magnus
3. Popliteus
4. Vastus lateralis

10. Brush burns refers to
1. Injury due to friction
2. Injury due to electrocution
3. Injury due to steam
4. None of the above
11. Erythema ab igne
1. Is due to excessive heat
2. Due to excessive cold
3. Due to increased friction
4. None of the above
12. The main controlling agent for respiratory drive is
1. Co₂
2. Oxygen
3. No
4. Hbo₃
13. The left to right shunt is seen in all of the following except
1. PDA
2. VSD
3. ASD
4. TGA
14. Digoxin is used in which of the following conditions
1. Atrial ectopics
2. Flutter with 2:1 block
3. Ventricular tachyarrhythmia
4. Ventricular bigeminy
15. Digoxin toxicity can be recognized when there is
1. QT interval is shortened
2. Ventricular bigeminy
3. Atrial flutter
4. Mobitz II degree heart block
16. The duration of the depolarisation of the heart from the SA node to the AV node is reflected on the ECG by
1. QT interval
2. PR interval
3. RS interval
4. RR interval
17. An adult female presented with thickening of base of nail plate of all the fingers .The most likely cause for her condition would be
1. Lead poisoning
2. Psoriasis
3. Lichen Planus
4. Pemphigus
18. A 13 year old boy presented with a 6 year old lesion over his buttock.On examination the lesion showed scarring at one side and also there was puckering of the overlying skin. The lesion is most likely to be
1. Tuberculous Chancre
2. Lupus vulgaris
3. Scofuloderma
4. None of the above

 

19. The most common cause of intestinal obstruction in an adult is
1. Diverticula
2. Adhesions
3. Trichobezoar
4. Volvulus
20. In pheochromocytoma there is increased level of
1. Serum HMA
2. Serum bradykinin
3. Urinary VMA
4. All of the above
21. In Werdnig Hoffman’s disease the lesion is at
1. Posterior horn cell
2. Anterior horn cell
3. Peripheral nerve
4. Motor end plate
22. Neonatal seizures with best prognosis is seen
1. Hypoglycemia
2. Late onset hypocalcemia
3. Hypoxia
4. Kernicterus
23. In a 30 year old patient presenting at 38weeks gestation with increased reflexes and hypertension and pedal edema all of the following can be seen except
1. Hypocalcemia
2. Increased platelets
3. Increased uric acid levels
4. Increased creatine levels
24. In toxic shock syndrome all of the following can be seen except
1. Shock
2. Fever
3. Hypercalcemia
4. Rash
25. Muscle crossing both shoulder and elbow joint is
1. Corochobrachialis
2. Medial head of triceps
3. Biceps bracii
4. Brachilais
26. The main bone of the nasal septum is
1. Vomer
2. Nasal bones
3. Maxillary bone
4. None of the above
27. All of the following open in the middle meatus except
1. Anterior ethmoidal sinus
2. Nasolacrimal duct
3. Maxillary sinus
4. Frontal sinus
28. Deep peronial nerve supplies all of the following except
1. Tibialis anterior
2. Extensor Hallusis longus
3. Extensor digitorum longus
4. Peroneus brevis

29. Which of the following structures enter through the greater sciatic notch and leave through the lessor notch
1. Obturator nerve
2. Pudendal artery
3. Femoral vessels
4. Lesser sciatic nerve
30. The sacrotuberous ligament represents the origin of
1. Gluteus Maximus
2. Semimembrabus
3. Medial head of biceps femoris
4. Sacrospinus lig
31. Ventral hernia includes
1. Obturator hernia
2. Incisinal hernia
3. Femoral hernia
4. Indirect inguinal hernia
32. Strangulated hernia is commonly seen in which of the following
1. Direct inguinal hernia
2. Indirect inguinal hernia
3. Femoral hernia
4. Obturator hernia
33. In a child who presented with twitching movements of the face and the upper extremities ,most probably has lesion involving
1. Precentral gyrus
2. Post central gyrus
3. Caudate nucleus
4. Frontal lobe
34. The root values of the pudendal nerve is
1. S_1,2,3
2. S₄
3. L_1,2,3
4. L_2,3,4
35. In a patient with thyroid surgery the block to be given is at the
1. Stellate ganglion
2. Upper cervical ganglion
3. Dorsal sympathetic ganglia
4. Any of the above
36. The stellate ganglion block would cause which of the following
1. Myosis
2. Flushing of skin
3. Ptosis
4. All of the above
37. The muscle arising from the scaphoid fossa is
1. Tensor tympani
2. Levator pelatii
3. Stylopharyngeus
4. Tensor palitii
38. EB virus belongs to which virus
1. Retro virus
2. Herpes virus
3. RNA virus
4. Pox virus

39. Butchers thigh would refer to
1. Lipodystrophy of subcutaneous tissue
2. Section of femoral vessels during boning
3. Rupture of vastus lateralis
4. Fracture of femur
40. The abnormal deposition of calcium pyro phosphate dyhydrate crystals(CPPD) would cause all of the following except
1. Pseudogout
2. Pseudoosteoarthritis
3. Pseudorheumatoid arthritis
4. Pseudoankylosing spondylitis
41. All of the following procedures can be done in osteoarthrosis  except
1. Synovectomy
2. Osteotomy
3. Arthrodesis
42. 1^st change in TB spine is
1. Erosion of pedicle
2. Narrowing of disc space
3. Abcess with soft tissue swelling
4. Disc collapse
43. LeFort’s fracture would include all of the following except
1. Maxilla
2. Mandible
3. Zygoma
4. Nasal bones
44. An infant was brought with history of running nose ,fever ,myalgia. There were also similar complaints seen in 3 other family members. Over the last 8 hours the infant has developed wheeze hyperexpansion of chest with difficulty in breathing ,but there were no rales on examination. The likely diagnosis is
1. Viral croup
2. Epiglotitis
3. Bronchiolitis
4. Bronchiectasis
45. On examination of a specimen the lung showed exudation of inflammatory cells with displacement of air .This is a pathologic feature of
1. Bronciectasis
2. Bronchial asthma
3. Lobar pneumonia
4. Bronchitis
46. At the end of a 48 hours fast the substance likely to be involved in the formation of blood glucose would be
1. Muscle glycogen
2. Liver glycogen
3. Aminoacid
4. Acetoacetate
47. The test commonly used to follow up patients to check for response of treatment in syphilis is
1. FTAbs
2. VDRL
3. Microheamglutination
4. TPI

48. In brain the breakdown of L-DOPA is prevented by
1. Deprinyl
2. Pyridoxine
3. Haloperidol
4. Bromocriptine
49. Selective reuptake inhibitor of serotonin but not norepinephrine is by
1. Protryptiline
2. Flouxetine
3. Meprotriline
4. Amytrptiline
50. Presence of sensation without the presence of a stimuli would refer to
1. Delusion
2. Hallucination
3. Illusion
4. Projection
51. Spider leg appearance is seen in
1. Polycystic kidneys
2. Horse shoe kidney
3. Angiomyolipoma’s
4. Renal TB
52. PQLI would include all of the following except
1. IMR
2. MMR
3. Life expectancy at 1 year
4. Literacy rate
53. The treatment of choice in otosclerosis is
1. NaF
2. Stapedectomy
3. Cochlear implant
4. Antibiotics
54. The response to iron administration would be earliest seen by
1. Increased TIBC
2. Increased haemoglobin
3. Reticulocytosis
4. Increased hematocrit
55. Which of the following is true in the nitrogen metabolism
1. Ammonia is the most important nitrogen containing substance in urine
2. There is breakdown and resynthesis of 56 gms of protein everyday
3. The enzymes aminotransferase and glutamate dehydrogenase are the main enzymes in the formation of urea
4. Excess of aminoacid are used in the synthesis of proteins
56. Methyl trap which occurs due to vitamin B12 deficiency would be due to
1. Methionine metabolism is decreased
2. Conversion of glutamyl coA to Succinyl coA
3. Conversion of methyl coA to succinyl coA

57. RNA is extracted through which of the following
1. Northern blot
2. Southern blot
3. Eastern blot
4. Western blot
58. X linked inheritance is seen in all of the following except
1. Fabry’s disease
2. G6PD deficiency
3. Myotonic dystrophy
4. Heamophilia A
59. All of the following are true about ZES except
1. Multiple ulcers may be seen
2. Ulcers at unusual places may be seen
3. Gastrin level is increased
4. Urease breath test is positive
60. In a 40 year patient there was pleural fluid .Analysis of this fluid showed a protein ratio of 0.38 and a LDH level of 125 U/L and LDH ratio of pleural fluid to serum of 0.48. The most probable diagnosis is
1. Ureamia
2. Congestive cardiac failure
3. Sarcoidosis
4. Pulmonary embolism
61. Horner Trantas spots are seen in which of the following
1. Trachoma
2. Vernal Cataarh
3. Disciform keratitis
4. Fungal infection
62. Cromolyn’s are used in the treatment of Asthma to prevent recurrecnces. The mechanism of action is by
1. Leukotreine antagonist
2. Beta 2 agonist
3. Mast cell stabilizer
4. Inhibits neutrophils
63. Corneal guttata is seen
1. Fuch’s endothelial dystrophy
2. Senile endothelial dystrophy
3. Secondary endothelial dystrophy
64. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with which of the following
1. Anterior capsular cataract
2. Posterior capsular cataract
3. Zonular cataract
4. Nuclear cataract
65. Most unstable vaccine is
1. OPV
2. BCG
3. DPT
4. Measles
66. Addition of detergent which causes disruption of phospholipid membrane in all of the following except
1. Polio virus
2. Vaccinia
3. Variola
4. Eastern equine encephalitis virus

67. Anterior uveitis is seen in which of the following
1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Ankylosing spondylitis
3. HLA B27
4. All of the above
68. All of the following are dimorphic fungi except
1. Blastomycosis
2. Candida
3. Coccidiodomycosis
4. Histoplasmosis
69. Which of the following is true about IV administration of gamma globulin
1. Should be given slow IV because it induces anticomplementary activity
2. Can be safely given in IgA deficiency
3. Known to cause AIDS
4. Large doses in ITP cause remission
70. Aschoff nodules are seen in
1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Rheumatic fever
3. SLE
4. Sjogren’s syndrome
71. Raynouds phenomenon is seen in all of the following except
1. Scleroderma
2. Beurgers disease
3. Thoraxic outlet syndrome
4. Vibratory tool users
72. Heamorhagic cystitis is seen in use of
1. Adriamycin
2. Cyclophosphamide
3. Bleomycin
4. Busulphan
73. Cardiac toxicity is seen most in
1. Bleomycin
2. Adriamycin
3. Methotrexate
4. Busulphan
74. Hepar lobatum is associated with
1. Hepatitis A
2. Syphillis
3. Yellow fever hepatitis
4. Dengue
75. All of the following arise from the ovum except
1. Teratoma
2. Struma ovarii
3. Krukenberg’s
4. Dysgerminoma
76. Endometrial hyperplasia is seen to be associated with
1. Cystic terratoma
2. Endodermal tumor
3. PCOD
4. Sertoli leydig cell tumor

77. Endometrial carcinoma is associated with all of the following except
1. Obesity
2. Multiparity
3. Hypertension
4. Diabetes Mellitus
78. A young male presented with gynecomastia and was found to have 47 XXY. He is also likely to have
1. Decreased levels of LH and FSH
2. Estrogen excess
3. Azoospermia
4. Progesternoe excess
79. All of the following are seen in turners syndrome except
1. Short stature
2. Mental retardation
3. Primary amenorrhea
4. Coarctation of aorta
80. Regulation of registered medical practitioner is under the purview of
1. State medical health council
2. Medical council of India
3. Health welfare ministry
4. Central health ministry
81. Somniferous toxin is
1. Dhatura
2. Opium
3. Belladona
4. Cannabis
82. Gastric lavage is contraindicated in
1. Carbolic acid poisoning
2. Sulphuric acid poisoning
3. Barbiturate poisoning
4. Benzodiazepine poisoning
83. Gall stone is commonly impacted at
1. Ileum
2. Colon
3. Stomach
4. Rectum
84. MTP act of 1971 provides for termination of pregnancy till what age
1. 12 weeks
2. 16 weeks
3. 20 weeks
4. 24 weeks
85. Zero order kinetics is followed by all of the following except
1. Phenytoin
2. Ethanol
3. Barbiturates
4. Salycilates
86. Frequent changes in glasses is associated with which of the following diseases
1. Closed angle glaucoma
2. Open angle glaucoma
3. Senile cataract
4. Vitreus heamorrage

87. Increased field of vision is associated with which of the following
1. Yellow
2. Blue
3. White
4. Green
88. Cough is an adverse effect seen in administration of which of the following
1. Nifedipine
2. Enalapril
3. Prazocin
4. Furesimide
89. Drug which can be safely used in pregnancy is
1. Tetracycline
2. Sulphonylurea
3. Heparin
4. Warfarin
90. Cauliflower ear is due to
1. Otitis externa
2. Haematoma of the ear
3. Mastoiditis
4. Congenital
91. All of the following are true about achondroplasia except
1. Large skull
2. Dwarfism
3. Mental retardation
4. Short trunk
92. Digoxin is used in
1. HOCM
2. Atrial fluttet
3. Ventricular arrhythmia’s
4. Ectopics
93. The antibioitic which can be safely used in pregnancy is
1. Tetracycline
2. Ampicillin
3. Streptomycin
4. Sulphonomides
94. Ototoxicity is seen in all of the following except
1. Ampicillin
2. Streptomycin
3. Kanamycin
4. Gentamycin
95. To differentiate between supraventricular tachycardia and ventricular tachycardia of aberrant conduction all the following points support the latter except
1. Wide QRS >0.16 secs
2. Carotid massage causes a 2:1 block
3. Oesophageal leads show A-V dissociation
96. Carotid sinus massage produces
1. Reflex bradypnea
2. Reflex bradycardia
3. Reflex tachycardia
4. Hyperpnea

97. Cardiospasm is
1. Coronary artery stenosis
2. Presbyoesophagus
3. Esophageal webs
4. Cricoid narrowing
98. Hirudin is
1. Blood coagulant
2. Found in human saliva
3. Inhibits thrombin
4. Is an antidote for heparin
99. The treatment of choice for resistant gonococcal infection is
1. Erythromycin
2. Benzathine pencillin
3. Benzylpencillin
4. Ceftriaxone
100. Theophylline levels are increased by
1. Ciprofloxacin
2. Cotrimoxazole
3. Erythromycin
4. All of the above
101. Best muscle relaxant effect is seen by
1. Halothane
2. Nitrous oxide
3. Ether
4. Theophylline
102. True about halothane is
1. Colourless liquid stored in amber coloured bottles
2. Used in vaporizers like floutec
3. Used in neurosurgery
4. All of the above
103. Regarding Pentothal sodium is
1. Amorphous yellow powder
2. General anaesthetic
3. Both A and B
4. Inhalational anaesthetic
104. True regarding Ozeana is all of the following except
1. More common in females
2. Unilateral
3. Feotor is essential feature
4. Full of greenish crusts
105. Ectopic pregnancy is more common seen in all of the following except
1. IUCD use
2. Adenomyosis
3. Endometriosis
4. Tuberculosis
106. Genital tuberculosis affects predominantly
1. Uterus
2. Ovary
3. Fallopian tubes
4. Cervix

107. In a diabetic lady the head is delivered but there is difficulty to deliver the shoulder. The condition that is likely suspected is
1. Omphalocele
2. Hydrocephalus
3. Shoulder dystocia
4. Siamese twins
108. Carcinoma in situ is treated by all of the following except
1. Laser ablation
2. Cryosurgery
3. Radical hysterectomy
4. Conization
109. Calot’s triangle is in relation to
1. Right hepatic artery
2. Left Gastric artery
3. Right gastric artery
4. Cystic artery
   a I p  p   g . c o m
110. Urokinase and streptokinase are contraindicated in
1. Malignancy
2. A-V fistula
3. Pulmonary embolism
4. Thrombophlebitis
111. The 2^nd stage of labour is defined as
1. Onset of true labour pains to expulsion of fetus
2. Complete dilation of cervix to expulsion of fetus
3. Labour pains to expulsion of placenta
4. Dilatation of cervix to expulsion of placenta
112. Early deceleration is seen with
1. Cord compression
2. Placental hypoxia
3. Head compression
4. None of the above
113. Best (specific) assessment of foetal well being is by
1. Biophysical profile
2. Oxytocin challenge test
3. Non stress test
4. Urinary estradiol estimation
114. Which of the following precipitates an attack of glaucoma in a patient
1. Dark environment
2. Atropine
3. Sleep
4. Timolol
115. Prostaglandins are generally not used in tocolysis because
1. They are terratogenic and cause fetal structural abnormalities
2. They may close the patent ductus arteriosis prematurely
3. Cause placental hypoxia
4. None of the above

116. Engagement refers to passage of
1. Presenting part through the inlet
2. Passage of occiput through inlet
3. Passage of greatest diameter of the presenting part through the inlet
4. Passage of presenting part through the outlet
117. In a diabetic patient post renal transplant there was decreased renal function within one month All of the following could explain the cause except
1. Acute transplant rejection
2. Uretric rejection resulting in its obstruction
3. Recurrence of disease process
4. Renal artery stenosis
118. The most common cause of secondary hypertension in children is
1. Renal artery stenosis
2. Adrenal tumors
3. Renal disease
4. Coarctation of aorta
119. Carcinoid tumors of the GIT commonly are known to affect which of the following valves
1. Pulmonary
2. Mitral
3. Tricuspid
4. Aortic
120. All of the following drugs are known to cause cholestatic jaundice except
1. INH
2. Chlorpromazine
3. O.C.Pills
4. Erythromycin
121. Mid day meal contains proteins  and calories in what proportions
1. ½  proteins and ½ calories
2. ½ proteins and 1/3^rd calories
3. 1/3^rd proteins and 1/3^rd calories
4. 2/3^rd calories and 1/3^rd proteins
122. The optimum calories to be provided by proteins should be
1. 5-10%
2. 10-15%
3. 15-20%
4. 20-30%
123. If a drug is given repeatedly at approximately the same time as its half life, after hom many dosings will the drug achieve a steady state in plasma
1. 2-3
2. 4-5
3. 8-9
4. 6-8
124. The most common complication of H. Infleunza meningitis is
1. Otitis media
2. Bronchopneumonia
3. Orchitis
4. Sub dural effusion

125. The factor which is responsible for the virulence of H. Influenza is
1. Potent endotoxin
2. Pili
3. A rubital and a ributol containing capsule
4. Exotoxin

126. Which of the following features about campylobacter jejuni is true
1. It releases an enterotoxin
2. Bloody diarhea is rare
3. Presents within 6 hours of ingestion of contaminated food
4. Organism can be detected in stools
127. The polymorphous rash which develops due to exposure to light is due to what wave length commonly
1. 210-300
2. 290-400
3. 400-700
4. 700-900
128. The most common cause of occupational skin cancer is
1. UV rays
2. Coal tar
3. Aniline dye’s
4. Crysolite
129. The causal agent associated with mesothelioma is
1. Lead
2. Arsenic
3. Asbestos
4. Silica
130. Vinyl choride is known to cause which of the following
1. Hepatoma
2. Angiosarcoma of the liver
3. Angiosarcoma of the kidney
4. Small cell carcinoma
131. The lymphatic spread is seen in all of the following except
1. Terratoma
2. Seminoma
3. Squamous cell carcinoma
4. Basal cell carcinoma
132. Which of the following is true regarding ESR
1. Increased in polycythemia
2. Increased in sickle cell anemia
3. Useful in monitoring the treatment response in temporal arteritis
4. Decreased in pregnancy
133. Which of the following is a T cell malignancy
1. CML
2. Hodgkins disease
3. Mycosis fungoides
4. Burkits lymphoma

134. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in which of the following conditions commonly
1. Hairy cell leukaemia
2. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
3. Chronic lymphoid leukaemia
4. Lymphomas
135. The phildelphia chromosome is classically associated with which of the following
1. CLL
2. CML
3. Burkits lymphoma
4. Hairy cell leukaemia “AI PP G”. c om
136. All of the following are poor prognosticators except
1. Mediastinal tumors
2. Leucocyte count>100000 cells/cmm at the time of presentation
3. Age between 2-10 years
4. Aneuploidy
137. The treatment of choice in pancreatic abcess is
1. Cystogastrostomy
2. Cystoenterostomy
3. External drainage
4. Antibiotics
138. Chronic pancreatitis is associated with all of the following except
1. Calcification of pancreatic duct
2. Steatorrhea
3. Bronze skin discoloration
4. Diabetes mellitus
139. Pyloric stenosis is associated with all of the following except
1. Weight loss
2. Diarrhea
3. Ramsteads operation
4. Hypokalemia is seen
140. Functions of the amniotic fluid include
1. Decreased fetal weight
2. Reduce trauma to fetus
3. Conjugate and store hormones
4. All of the above
141. True about medullary carcinoma of thyroid is all of the following except
1. Arises from parafollicular cells
2. APUD tumor
3. Familial association with parathyroid adenoma’s and pheochromocytoma’s
4. Intense lymphocytic infiltration
142. Best prognosis is seen in which of the following thyroid carcinoma’s
1. Papillary
2. Follicular
3. Medullary
4. Anaplastic
143. KFD is transmitted by
1. Soft tick
2. Hard tick
3. Mosquito
4. Body louse

144. Supraclavicular lymphnode involvement is commonly seen in
1. Primary lymphoma’s
2. Stomach and lung cancer
3. Lateral 1/3^rd tumors of tongue
4. Tumors of the ear
145. In a 48 year old patient the serum osmolality was found to be low. His serum sodium was 120 meq/l. To make a diagnosis of SIADH which of the following would be consistent
1. Persistently urine osmolality<300 mosm
2. Serum potassium 6 mmol/l
3. Presents with nocturia
4. Collapse of right apical lobe on X-Ray
146. Uncinate fits are commonly preceded by
1. Visual hallucinations
2. Unpleasant olfactory sensations
3. Feeling of unreality
4. Auditory hallucinations
147. The olfactory tract ends by passing through which of the following
1. Medial olfactory striae
2. Lateral olfactory striae
3. Diagonal band of broca’s
148. Mondor’s disease is
1. Terratoma of the mediastinum
2. Thrombophlebitis of the breast vessels
3. Associated with renal carcinoma
4. None of the above
149. The origin of the medial epiphyseal centre is
1. 3 years
2. 7 years
3. 11 years
4. 5years
150. Which of the following peptides antogonizes the actions of insulin
1. Neuropeptide Y
2. Growth hormone
3. Substance P
4. Vasoactive intestinal peptide
151. The discovery of the small pox vaccination is credited to
1. Pasteur
2. Jenner
3. Lister
4. Koch
152. The audiometry in noise induced hearing loss would show a dip at what frequency
1. 2000 Hz
2. 1000 Hz
3. 3000 Hz
4. 4000 Hz
153. The treatment of choice in otosclerosis is
1. NaF
2. Stapedectomy
3. Cochlear implant
4. Antibiotics

154. Epiphyseal dysgenesis is seen in which of the following
1. Hypoparathyroidism
2. Hyperparathyroidism
3. Hypothyroidism
4. Hyperthyroidism
155. A farmer after several hours after entering his farm develops fever myalgia and dyspnea. All of the following are true about his disease except
1. PFT would reveal a restrictive pattern
2. Precipitating antibodies can be confirmative
3. Thermophilic actinomycetes can be the causative agent
4. Immediate IgE is not associated with this disease process
156. Social pathology would refer to
1. Determinants of disease in community
2. Frequency of disease in community
3. Type of disease in community
4. Relation between disease and social pathology
157. KF rings are found in
1. Heamochromatosis
2. Wilson’s disease
3. Diabetes Mellitus
4. Rheumatoid arthritis
158. Epidemic typhus is caused by
1. R. typhii
2. R. prowazaki
3. R. akari
4. R. Rickettsiae
159. Which of the following can be found in chronic active hepatitis
1. HbsAg positive HbsAb negative
2. HbsAg negative HbcAb positive and HbsAb negative
3. HbsAg negative HbsAg positive
4. HbsAg positive HbcAb negative
160. All of the following are included as causes of maternal death except
1. Following abortion
2. During lactation 1^st month
3. During lactation 8^th month
4. During the last trimester due to APH
161. PQLI would include all of the following except
1. IMR
2. MMR
3. Life expectancy at 1 year
4. Literacy rate
162. Inspite of use of tocolytics there were labour pains, to increase the fetal lung maturity the drug to be used is
1. Methyldopa
2. Propranolol
3. Insulin
4. Betamethasone

163. True about spina bifida and anencephaly is all of the following except
1. May be familial
2. Always caused by toxin
3. Can be reliably diagnosed by ultrasound and AFP levels
4. Associated with hydramnios
164. TB cases can be detected in mass populations by which of the following
1. Sputum AFB
2. Tuberculin
3. Sputum culture
4. MMR
165. A technologist forgets iodine fixation step while doing the gram stain preparation of a ataphylococci containing specimen. The organisms would appear
1. Pink
2. Blue
3. The organisms would be washed off the slide
4. Colourless
166. Retinitis pigmentosa would affect
1. Rods predominantly
2. Cones predominantly
3. Both equally
4. Rods only
167. Cyclic trends are seen in which of the following
1. Rabies
2. Measles
3. Cholera
4. Hepatitis
168. Most labile vaccine is
1. OPV
2. Measles
3. BCG
4. DPT
169. Which of the following are true about ANP
1. Increased blood pressure
2. Increased GFR
3. Increased sodium reabsorption
4. Causes decreased sodium secretion
170. Basophilic stippling is seen which of the following cells
1. Neutrophils
2. RBC’s
3. Basophils
4. Eosinophils
171. Median is defined as
1. The most repeatable value in a sequence
2. Core value in a randomly arranged set of values
3. The mid value in a set of values arranged in ascending or descending way
4. Sum of all the value divided by the number of variables

172. All of the following about turners syndrome are true except
1. Amennorhea
2. Mental retardation
3. Short stature
4. Coarctation of aorta
173. True regarding cystic hygroma is
1. Is a type of cavernous hemangioma
2. Is brilliantly translucent
3. Is due to defect in 2^nd arch
174. Genetic counselling is helpful in decreasing the incidence of
1. AIDS
2. Coronary artery disease
3. Sickle cell disease
4. Cleft palate
175. Blood supply of nasal mucosa is through
1. Mostly Internal carotid artery
2. Mostly external carotid artery
3. Only internal carotid artery
4. Only external carotid artery’
176. True about cerebellum is
1. Is largely a negative output from the cortex
2. Has a inhibitory tone on the muscle
3. Causes conscious motor activity
4. The deep cerebellar nuclei have a predominantly a excitatory output
177. Dapsone is useful in all of the following except
1. Dermatitis herpetiformis
2. Mycetoma
3. Lymphoma
4. Leprosy
178. Space spray is
1. Malathion
2. Pyrethrum
3. DDT
4. Chlorfos
179. Index case is defined as
1. The 1^st case to start the epidemic
2. The 1^st case to come to the notice of the investigator
3. The 1^st confirmed case responsible for the epidemic
180. The common problem seen in tracheostomy in children is
1. Vocal cord granuloma
2. Decannulation
3. Vocal cord paralysis
4. Tracheal stenosis
181. Regarding surfactant all of the following are true except
1. Composed of phosphosphingolipids
2. Decreased compliance
3. Secreted by type II cells
4. Prevents lung collapse

182. True regarding atopic dermatitis is
1. Can be reliably diagnosed by history of atopy and pruritus and the clinical features
2. Involves the extensor aspect in adults
3. Is an autoimmune process
183. Ingestion of eggs with the passage of the larva to the lungs is the life cycle seen in
1. Strongoloides stercoralis
2. Ankylostoma duodenale
3. Ascaris
4. Shistosomiasis
184. In the life cycle of anopheles mosquito the humans are
1. Accidental hosts
2. Intermediate host
3. Definitive host
4. Obligatory hosts
185. Accole forms are seen in
1. P.vivax
2. P. falciparam
3. P.malraie
4. P.ovale
186. The root values of the pudendal nerve is
1. S_1,2,3
2. S₄
3. L_1,2,3
4. L_2,3,4
187. The most common complication of H. Infleunza meningitis is
1. Otitis media
2. Bronchopneumonia
3. Orchitis
4. Sub dural effusion
188. Aschoff nodules are seen in
1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Rheumatic fever
3. SLE
4. Sjogren’s syndrome
189. The optimum calories to be provided by proteins should be
1. 5-10%
2. 10-15%
3. 15-20%
4. 20-30%
190. False regarding embrolyologic development is
1. Fossa ovalis is from primary septum
2. Septum fossa ovalis is from ostium secundum
3. Foramina venereum is arising form the interventricular septum
4. Foramina venereum is arising form the left side