76. Warthin Finkedly cells are seen in
A. Warthin Tumor
B. Wolman disease
C. Whooping cough
D.Measles
Ans D
A Warthin–Finkeldey cell is a type of giant multinucleate cell found in various organs in infections with measles
77. Philadelphia chromosome is the first tumor specific chromosomal change discovered by
A Nowell and Hungerford
B Watson and Crick
C Alfred Knudsen
D Maurice Wilkins
Ans A
The discovery of the Philadelphia chromosome as a hallmark of chronic myelogenous leukemia in 1960 by Peter Nowell provided evidence for a genetic link to cancer.
In 1960, Peter C. Nowell then a junior faculty member at the University of Pennsylvania School of Medicine, together with a graduate student, David Hungerford, described an unusual small chromosome present in leukocytes from patients with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML
78. Parathyroid hormone — related protein (PTHrP) is a polypeptide normally produced by
A. parafollicular cells of thyroid -
B. chief cells of parathyroid
C. pituicytes
D. squamous epithelial cells of he skin
Ans D
Parathyroid hormone-related protein (or PTHrP) is a protein member of the parathyroid hormone family. It is occasionally secreted by cancer cells (breast cancer, certain types of lung cancer including squamous cell carcinoma). However, it also has normal functions.
Human keratinocytesin primaryculturewerethefirstnormalcellsshowntosecrete PTHrP (5). Immunohistochemical studies have localized PTHrPfromthebasallayerthroughthegranulosalayerofthe epidermis, in skin appendages, and in fetal rat skin as early as 14 days of gestation (4, 6). PTHrP gene expression is regulated in cultured keratinocytes by serum, by 1,25- dihydroxyvitamin D, and by an as-yet-unidentified dermal fibroblast-derivedfactor(7,8).The classicalPTH/PTHrP receptorispresentondermalfibroblasts(9),butthereisalso evidenceforspecificPTHrPreceptorsonkeratinocytes(10). Thus,PTHrPisproducedinskin;itsproductionisregulated, and its effects in skin may be mediated by autocrine or paracrinepathways,orboth.
79. TRUE statement about metastases of malignant tumors of brain is
A. drop metastases can occur in the spinal cord
B. lymph node metastases in patients who have had brain surgery
C. metastases through man made shunts
D. All of the above
Ans D
intradural metastases
Metastasis to the dura may arise from a variety of primary malignancies, most commonly breast cancer, lung cancer, and melanoma. Tumors of the central nervous system (glioblastoma multiforme and posterior fossa ependymomas) may produce "drop metastases." These metastatic lesions usually appear as small, round, multifocal lesions that enhance and stud the surface of the cord. Lymphomatous metastases, on the other hand, tend to produce a more diffuse pial enhancement, as may breast and prostate metastases. In a patient with metastatic disease, these radiographic appearances generally indicate extramedullary-intradural disease. It should be noted, however, that multiple cerebral spinal fluid analyses are far more sensitive than imaging studies in the determination of this process.
80. Which of the following structures in the lung is likely to be affected the most in a patient who smoked a pack and half of cigarettes per day for 30 years and developed centrilobular emphysema ?
A .Alveolar sac
B . Terminal bronchiole
C . Alveolar duct
D . Respiratory bronchiole
Ans D
there are two major types of emphysema: centrilobular (centriacinar) and panlobular (panacinar). The former involves primarily the upper lobes while the latter involves all lung fields, particularly the bases.
Centrilobular emphysema occurs with loss of the respiratory bronchioles in the proximal portion of the acinus, with sparing of distal alveoli. This pattern is most typical for smokers.
Panacinar emphysema occurs with loss of all portions of the acinus from the respiratory bronchiole to the alveoli. This pattern is typical for alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency.
B. Wolman disease
C. Whooping cough
D.Measles
Ans D
A Warthin–Finkeldey cell is a type of giant multinucleate cell found in various organs in infections with measles
77. Philadelphia chromosome is the first tumor specific chromosomal change discovered by
A Nowell and Hungerford
B Watson and Crick
C Alfred Knudsen
D Maurice Wilkins
Ans A
The discovery of the Philadelphia chromosome as a hallmark of chronic myelogenous leukemia in 1960 by Peter Nowell provided evidence for a genetic link to cancer.
In 1960, Peter C. Nowell then a junior faculty member at the University of Pennsylvania School of Medicine, together with a graduate student, David Hungerford, described an unusual small chromosome present in leukocytes from patients with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML
78. Parathyroid hormone — related protein (PTHrP) is a polypeptide normally produced by
A. parafollicular cells of thyroid -
B. chief cells of parathyroid
C. pituicytes
D. squamous epithelial cells of he skin
Ans D
Parathyroid hormone-related protein (or PTHrP) is a protein member of the parathyroid hormone family. It is occasionally secreted by cancer cells (breast cancer, certain types of lung cancer including squamous cell carcinoma). However, it also has normal functions.
Human keratinocytesin primaryculturewerethefirstnormalcellsshowntosecrete PTHrP (5). Immunohistochemical studies have localized PTHrPfromthebasallayerthroughthegranulosalayerofthe epidermis, in skin appendages, and in fetal rat skin as early as 14 days of gestation (4, 6). PTHrP gene expression is regulated in cultured keratinocytes by serum, by 1,25- dihydroxyvitamin D, and by an as-yet-unidentified dermal fibroblast-derivedfactor(7,8).The classicalPTH/PTHrP receptorispresentondermalfibroblasts(9),butthereisalso evidenceforspecificPTHrPreceptorsonkeratinocytes(10). Thus,PTHrPisproducedinskin;itsproductionisregulated, and its effects in skin may be mediated by autocrine or paracrinepathways,orboth.
79. TRUE statement about metastases of malignant tumors of brain is
A. drop metastases can occur in the spinal cord
B. lymph node metastases in patients who have had brain surgery
C. metastases through man made shunts
D. All of the above
Ans D
intradural metastases
Metastasis to the dura may arise from a variety of primary malignancies, most commonly breast cancer, lung cancer, and melanoma. Tumors of the central nervous system (glioblastoma multiforme and posterior fossa ependymomas) may produce "drop metastases." These metastatic lesions usually appear as small, round, multifocal lesions that enhance and stud the surface of the cord. Lymphomatous metastases, on the other hand, tend to produce a more diffuse pial enhancement, as may breast and prostate metastases. In a patient with metastatic disease, these radiographic appearances generally indicate extramedullary-intradural disease. It should be noted, however, that multiple cerebral spinal fluid analyses are far more sensitive than imaging studies in the determination of this process.
80. Which of the following structures in the lung is likely to be affected the most in a patient who smoked a pack and half of cigarettes per day for 30 years and developed centrilobular emphysema ?
A .Alveolar sac
B . Terminal bronchiole
C . Alveolar duct
D . Respiratory bronchiole
Ans D
there are two major types of emphysema: centrilobular (centriacinar) and panlobular (panacinar). The former involves primarily the upper lobes while the latter involves all lung fields, particularly the bases.
Centrilobular emphysema occurs with loss of the respiratory bronchioles in the proximal portion of the acinus, with sparing of distal alveoli. This pattern is most typical for smokers.
Panacinar emphysema occurs with loss of all portions of the acinus from the respiratory bronchiole to the alveoli. This pattern is typical for alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency.
81. Corbus disease is
A. Dense fibrosis of Dermis and Buck fascia of penile corpus
B. Balanitis circumscripta plasmacellularis
C. Gangrenous balanitis
D. Erythroplasia of Queyrat
Ans C
Gangrenous balanitis
Rapidly progressing necrotizing inflammatory disease due to anaerobes in glans penis
● Also called Corbus’s disease
● Caused by anaerobic microorganisms; associated with poor hygiene
● Rapidly progressive necrotizing inflammatory process due to anaerobes in glans penis
● May cause total necrosis of glans; although foreskin may be secondarily involved in advanced cases, the site of the lesion is the glans, sparing the penile fascia, dartos and foreskin (in contrast to Fournier’s gangrene)
● Similar changes in distal penis are caused by penile necrosis in diabetic patients and by penile prosthesis
82. In which following subtypes of Hodgkin lymphoma, the diagnostic R-S giant cells are usually negative for CD 15 and CD 30?
A. Mixed cellularity
B. Lymphocyte rich
C. Lymphocyte depletion
D. Lymphocyte predominance
Ans d
first four types listed in the table below are "classical HL" and have Reed-Sternberg cells that immunohistochemically are positive for CD15 and CD30 but negative for CD45.
Lymphocyte predominance HL has RS cells that are CD20 positive but CD15 and CD30 negative, more like B cells
83. Ames test in Neoplasia is a test for
A. Teratogenicity
B. Mutagenicity
C. Carcinogenicity
D. Clonality
Ans B
The Ames test is a biological assay to assess the mutagenic potential of chemical compounds.[1] A positive test indicates that the chemical is mutagenic and therefore may act as a carcinogen, since cancer is often linked to mutation. However, a number of false-positives and false-negatives are known.[2] The test serves as a quick and convenient assay to estimate the carcinogenic potential of a compound since standard carcinogen assays on rodents are time-consuming (taking two to three years to complete) and expensive
84. Macro-orchidism in post pubertal males is a feature of
A. Fragile X-syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Tuner syndrome
D. Down syndrome
Ans A
Macroorchidism is a genetic disorder found in males where a subject has abnormally large testes. The condition is commonly inherited in connection with fragile X syndrome, which is also the second most common genetic cause of mental disabilities. This contrasts with Microorchidism, which is the condition of abnormally small testes.
85. One of the following is a germ cell tumor of ovary
A. Granulosa cell tumor
B. Mucinous cystadenoma
C. Brenner tumour
D. Benign cystic teratoma
Germ cell tumors are broadly divided in two classes:
The germinomatous or seminomatous germ cell tumors (GGCT, SGCT) include only germinoma and its synonyms dysgerminoma and seminoma.
The nongerminomatous or nonseminomatous germ cell tumors (NGGCT, NSGCT) include all other germ cell tumors, pure and mixed
Ans d.
86.Danbury tremors are seen in cases of chronic poisoning due to
A. bismuth
B. lead
C. alcohol
D. mercury
Ans D
Chronic mercury poisoning: Features
" TABLE "
• Tremor (Intentional, coarse, affecting arms, hands, tongue and later legs, also called hatter's shake/glass blower's shake/danbury tremors)
• Acrodynia (Pink disease, characterised by pain, paraesthesia, pinkish discolouration of hands and feets)
• Blue-Black line on gums
• Lentis (Mercuria lentis, deposition of brown pigment on anterior lens capsule without affecting visual acuity)
Erethism (Psychological disturbance characterised by shyness, timidness, loss of memory, depression, insomnia)
87. Gila monster is a type of
A. Lizard
B. Snake
C. Toad
D. Scorpion.
88. Minimum punishment in cases of gang rape is
A. 6 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. 12 years
Ans C
The minimum punishment in a gang rape case is ten years of imprisonment that can go up to life imprisonment
89. Paltauf's haemorrhages are seen in
A. hanging
B. strangulation
C. drowning
D. CO poisoning
Ans C
90. Masochism is a form of sexual perversion
A. in which sexual gratification is sought by being beaten, tormented or humiliated by one's sexual partner
B. in which a male gets sexual excitement leading to orgasm from part of the body of a woman or some article belonging to her
C. in which infliction of pain, torture and humiliation to the partner, acts as sexual stimulant
D. in which there is a desire to wear clothes of the opposite sex
Ans A
the terms sadism and masochism describe a personality type characterized by the individual deriving pleasure and gratification from either inflicting or receiving physical pain and/or humiliation, respectively. In some cases the pleasure and gratification may be sexual but in others sexual pleasure is not experienced, and it may involve deriving the pleasure from masochistic or degenerate behaviour towards the opposite gender or same gender as self. Some individuals appear to be exclusively degenerate and others exclusively masochistic in deriving their pleasure, but many alternately derive pleasure from degenerate and masochistic thoughts and experiences involving themselves and other
91. A sequence of activities designed to implement policies and accomplish objectives is called
A. schedule
B. programme
C. planning cycle
D. scheme
Ans B
PLANNING CYCLE
Planning is the broad foundation on which much of management is based. Planning may be defined as a process of analysing a system, or defining a problem, assessing the extent to which the problem exists as a need, formulating goals and objectives to alleviate or ameliorate those identified needs, examining and choosing from among alternative intervention strategies, initiating the necessary action for its implementation and monitoring the system to ensure proper implementation of the plan and evaluating the results of intervention in the light of stated objectives. Planning thus involves a succession of steps
A “programme” is a sequence of activities designed to implement policies and accomplish objectives. A programme gives a step-by-step approach to guide the action necessary to reach a predetermined goal. Programmes must be closely integrated with objectives.
A “schedule” is a time sequence for the work to be done.
‘‘Procedures” are a set of rules for carrying out work which, when observed by all, help to ensure the maximum use of the resources and efforts.
“Policies” are the guiding principles stated as an expectation, not as a commandment.
A. Dense fibrosis of Dermis and Buck fascia of penile corpus
B. Balanitis circumscripta plasmacellularis
C. Gangrenous balanitis
D. Erythroplasia of Queyrat
Ans C
Gangrenous balanitis
Rapidly progressing necrotizing inflammatory disease due to anaerobes in glans penis
● Also called Corbus’s disease
● Caused by anaerobic microorganisms; associated with poor hygiene
● Rapidly progressive necrotizing inflammatory process due to anaerobes in glans penis
● May cause total necrosis of glans; although foreskin may be secondarily involved in advanced cases, the site of the lesion is the glans, sparing the penile fascia, dartos and foreskin (in contrast to Fournier’s gangrene)
● Similar changes in distal penis are caused by penile necrosis in diabetic patients and by penile prosthesis
82. In which following subtypes of Hodgkin lymphoma, the diagnostic R-S giant cells are usually negative for CD 15 and CD 30?
A. Mixed cellularity
B. Lymphocyte rich
C. Lymphocyte depletion
D. Lymphocyte predominance
Ans d
first four types listed in the table below are "classical HL" and have Reed-Sternberg cells that immunohistochemically are positive for CD15 and CD30 but negative for CD45.
Lymphocyte predominance HL has RS cells that are CD20 positive but CD15 and CD30 negative, more like B cells
83. Ames test in Neoplasia is a test for
A. Teratogenicity
B. Mutagenicity
C. Carcinogenicity
D. Clonality
Ans B
The Ames test is a biological assay to assess the mutagenic potential of chemical compounds.[1] A positive test indicates that the chemical is mutagenic and therefore may act as a carcinogen, since cancer is often linked to mutation. However, a number of false-positives and false-negatives are known.[2] The test serves as a quick and convenient assay to estimate the carcinogenic potential of a compound since standard carcinogen assays on rodents are time-consuming (taking two to three years to complete) and expensive
84. Macro-orchidism in post pubertal males is a feature of
A. Fragile X-syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Tuner syndrome
D. Down syndrome
Ans A
Macroorchidism is a genetic disorder found in males where a subject has abnormally large testes. The condition is commonly inherited in connection with fragile X syndrome, which is also the second most common genetic cause of mental disabilities. This contrasts with Microorchidism, which is the condition of abnormally small testes.
85. One of the following is a germ cell tumor of ovary
A. Granulosa cell tumor
B. Mucinous cystadenoma
C. Brenner tumour
D. Benign cystic teratoma
Germ cell tumors are broadly divided in two classes:
The germinomatous or seminomatous germ cell tumors (GGCT, SGCT) include only germinoma and its synonyms dysgerminoma and seminoma.
The nongerminomatous or nonseminomatous germ cell tumors (NGGCT, NSGCT) include all other germ cell tumors, pure and mixed
Ans d.
86.Danbury tremors are seen in cases of chronic poisoning due to
A. bismuth
B. lead
C. alcohol
D. mercury
Ans D
Chronic mercury poisoning: Features
" TABLE "
• Tremor (Intentional, coarse, affecting arms, hands, tongue and later legs, also called hatter's shake/glass blower's shake/danbury tremors)
• Acrodynia (Pink disease, characterised by pain, paraesthesia, pinkish discolouration of hands and feets)
• Blue-Black line on gums
• Lentis (Mercuria lentis, deposition of brown pigment on anterior lens capsule without affecting visual acuity)
Erethism (Psychological disturbance characterised by shyness, timidness, loss of memory, depression, insomnia)
87. Gila monster is a type of
A. Lizard
B. Snake
C. Toad
D. Scorpion.
88. Minimum punishment in cases of gang rape is
A. 6 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. 12 years
Ans C
The minimum punishment in a gang rape case is ten years of imprisonment that can go up to life imprisonment
89. Paltauf's haemorrhages are seen in
A. hanging
B. strangulation
C. drowning
D. CO poisoning
Ans C
90. Masochism is a form of sexual perversion
A. in which sexual gratification is sought by being beaten, tormented or humiliated by one's sexual partner
B. in which a male gets sexual excitement leading to orgasm from part of the body of a woman or some article belonging to her
C. in which infliction of pain, torture and humiliation to the partner, acts as sexual stimulant
D. in which there is a desire to wear clothes of the opposite sex
Ans A
the terms sadism and masochism describe a personality type characterized by the individual deriving pleasure and gratification from either inflicting or receiving physical pain and/or humiliation, respectively. In some cases the pleasure and gratification may be sexual but in others sexual pleasure is not experienced, and it may involve deriving the pleasure from masochistic or degenerate behaviour towards the opposite gender or same gender as self. Some individuals appear to be exclusively degenerate and others exclusively masochistic in deriving their pleasure, but many alternately derive pleasure from degenerate and masochistic thoughts and experiences involving themselves and other
91. A sequence of activities designed to implement policies and accomplish objectives is called
A. schedule
B. programme
C. planning cycle
D. scheme
Ans B
PLANNING CYCLE
Planning is the broad foundation on which much of management is based. Planning may be defined as a process of analysing a system, or defining a problem, assessing the extent to which the problem exists as a need, formulating goals and objectives to alleviate or ameliorate those identified needs, examining and choosing from among alternative intervention strategies, initiating the necessary action for its implementation and monitoring the system to ensure proper implementation of the plan and evaluating the results of intervention in the light of stated objectives. Planning thus involves a succession of steps
A “programme” is a sequence of activities designed to implement policies and accomplish objectives. A programme gives a step-by-step approach to guide the action necessary to reach a predetermined goal. Programmes must be closely integrated with objectives.
A “schedule” is a time sequence for the work to be done.
‘‘Procedures” are a set of rules for carrying out work which, when observed by all, help to ensure the maximum use of the resources and efforts.
“Policies” are the guiding principles stated as an expectation, not as a commandment.
92. Which of the following is the most commonly used measure of variation ?
A. Standard error
B. Standard deviation
C. Range
D. Mean or average deviation
Ans B
Standard Error
If we take a random sample (t|) from the population, and similar samples over and over again we will find that every sample will have a different mean (IT ). If we make a frequency distribution of all the sample means drawn from the same population, we will find that the distribution of the mean is nearly a normal distribution and the mean of the sample means practically the same as the population mean (u). This is a very important observation that the sample means are distributed normally about the population mean (u). The standard deviation of the means is a measure of the sample error and is given by the formula o/Vrj which is called the standard error or the standard error of the mean. Since the distribution of the means follows the pattern of a normal distribution, it is not difficult to visualize that 95 per cent of the sample means will lie within limits of two standard error [|J. ± 2 (o/Vrj)] on either side of the true or population mean. Therefore standard error (S.E.). is a measure which enables us to judge whether the mean of a given sample is within the set confidence limits or not.
The Standard Deviation
There are several measures of variation (or “dispersion” as it is technically called) of which the following are widely known:
(a) The Range
(b) The Mean or Average Deviation
(c) The Standard Deviation
The standard deviation is the most frequently used measure of deviation simple terms, it is defined as “Root–Means–Square–Deviation”.
93. Which of the following micro-organisms is the indicator of bacterial quality and contamination of water ?
A. E. Coli
B. Staphylococci
C. V. Cholerae
D. Salmonella Typhi
Ans A
The primary bacterial indicator recommended for this purpose is the coliform group of organisms as a whole. Supplementary indicator organisms, such as faecal streptococci and sulphite-reducing clostridia, may sometimes be useful in determining the origin of faecal pollution as well as in assessing the efficiency of water treatment processes.
(1) Coliform organisms: The “coliform” organisms include all aerobic and facultative anaerobic, gram-negative, non-sporing, motile and non-motile rods capable of fermenting lactose at 35 to 37 deg. C in less than 48 hours. The coliform group includes both faecal and non-faecal organisms. Typical example of the faecal group is E. coli and of the non-faecal group, Klebsiella aerogens. From a practical point of view it is assumed that all coliforms are of faecal origin unless a non-faecal origin can be proved
(2) There are several reasons why coliform organisms are chosen as indicators of faecal pollution rather than the water-borne pathogens directly: (1) the coliform organisms are constantly present in great abundance in the human intestine. It is estimated that an average person excretes 200-400 billion of these organisms per day. These organisms are foreign to potable waters, and hence their presence in water is looked upon as evidence of faecal contamination, (2) they are easily detected by culture methods - as small as one bacteria in 100 ml of water, whereas the methods for detecting the pathogenic organisms are complicated and time-consuming, (3) they survive longer than the pathogens, which tend to die out more rapidly than coliform bacilli, (4) the coliflorm bacilli have greater resistance to the forces of natural purification than the water borne pathogens. If the coliform organisms are present in a water sample, the assumption is the probable presence of intestinal pathogens
(3)
A. Standard error
B. Standard deviation
C. Range
D. Mean or average deviation
Ans B
Standard Error
If we take a random sample (t|) from the population, and similar samples over and over again we will find that every sample will have a different mean (IT ). If we make a frequency distribution of all the sample means drawn from the same population, we will find that the distribution of the mean is nearly a normal distribution and the mean of the sample means practically the same as the population mean (u). This is a very important observation that the sample means are distributed normally about the population mean (u). The standard deviation of the means is a measure of the sample error and is given by the formula o/Vrj which is called the standard error or the standard error of the mean. Since the distribution of the means follows the pattern of a normal distribution, it is not difficult to visualize that 95 per cent of the sample means will lie within limits of two standard error [|J. ± 2 (o/Vrj)] on either side of the true or population mean. Therefore standard error (S.E.). is a measure which enables us to judge whether the mean of a given sample is within the set confidence limits or not.
The Standard Deviation
There are several measures of variation (or “dispersion” as it is technically called) of which the following are widely known:
(a) The Range
(b) The Mean or Average Deviation
(c) The Standard Deviation
The standard deviation is the most frequently used measure of deviation simple terms, it is defined as “Root–Means–Square–Deviation”.
93. Which of the following micro-organisms is the indicator of bacterial quality and contamination of water ?
A. E. Coli
B. Staphylococci
C. V. Cholerae
D. Salmonella Typhi
Ans A
The primary bacterial indicator recommended for this purpose is the coliform group of organisms as a whole. Supplementary indicator organisms, such as faecal streptococci and sulphite-reducing clostridia, may sometimes be useful in determining the origin of faecal pollution as well as in assessing the efficiency of water treatment processes.
(1) Coliform organisms: The “coliform” organisms include all aerobic and facultative anaerobic, gram-negative, non-sporing, motile and non-motile rods capable of fermenting lactose at 35 to 37 deg. C in less than 48 hours. The coliform group includes both faecal and non-faecal organisms. Typical example of the faecal group is E. coli and of the non-faecal group, Klebsiella aerogens. From a practical point of view it is assumed that all coliforms are of faecal origin unless a non-faecal origin can be proved
(2) There are several reasons why coliform organisms are chosen as indicators of faecal pollution rather than the water-borne pathogens directly: (1) the coliform organisms are constantly present in great abundance in the human intestine. It is estimated that an average person excretes 200-400 billion of these organisms per day. These organisms are foreign to potable waters, and hence their presence in water is looked upon as evidence of faecal contamination, (2) they are easily detected by culture methods - as small as one bacteria in 100 ml of water, whereas the methods for detecting the pathogenic organisms are complicated and time-consuming, (3) they survive longer than the pathogens, which tend to die out more rapidly than coliform bacilli, (4) the coliflorm bacilli have greater resistance to the forces of natural purification than the water borne pathogens. If the coliform organisms are present in a water sample, the assumption is the probable presence of intestinal pathogens
(3)
94. Which one of the following is also known as Tiger Mosquito ?
A. Anopheles
B. Culex
C. Aedes
D. Mansonia
Ans C
Aedes mosquitoes are easily distinguished by white stripes on a black body. Because of the striped or banded character of their legs they are sometimes referred to as “tiger mosquitoes”. Important members of this group of mosquitoes are: Aedes aegypti, Aedes uittatus and Aedes albopictus. Aedes mosquitoes are most abundant during rainy season.
95. Biological vector for Q fever is
A. flea
B. louse
C. tick
D. chigger
Ans C
Q fever
AGENT: The causative agent is Coxiella burnetii. It is found in ticks which act as vectors as well as reservoir, (b) ANIMAL HOSTS: Cattle, sheep, goats, ticks and some wild animals are natural reservoirs. Infected animals shed the disease agent in the faeces and urine and heavily contaminate the soil. The placenta of infected cows and sheep contains the infectious agent which may create infectious aerosols during parturition. Camels, horses, dogs and many other domestic animals have been shown to be capable of acting as maintenance hosts
96. Which of the following is the best study design, if the disease is a rare disease ?
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Case-control study
C. Cohort Study
D. Randomized controlled trial
Ans B
97. The full form ICDS is
A. Intensive Child Development Scheme
B. Information Communication Development and Service
C. Integrated Child Development Services
D. Integrated Child and Adolescent Development Services
Ans C
ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services) projects which are functioning in about 5320 blocks all over the country. The principal worker in ICDS projects is the Anganwadi worker. In one ICDS “project”, there are about 100 Anganwadi workers, who are providing a package of basic health services (e.g., supplementary nutrition, immunization, health check-up, referral, nutrition and health education, and non-formal education services) to mothers and children. Their activities are guided by the Child Development Project Officer (CDPO).
98. Social Security considers three essential elements, the security of employment, security of income and the third one is
A. security of right to express oneself
B. security of right to work
C. security of right to worship
D. none of the above
Ans D
Social security is defined as that “security that society furnishes through appropriate organization, against certain risks to which its members are exposed”. The risks which social security covers in most countries are sickness, invalidity, maternity, old age and death. Social security also includes social insurance and social assistance.
Social security for Industrial workers
The social security measures for industrial workers in India are contained in the following legislations:
(1) Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
(2) Central Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
(3) Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
(4) The Family Pension Scheme, 1971
Some of these Acts have been described elsewhere in the text.
Social security for civil servants
The employees of the Central and State Government havt pension, gratuity, provident fund and family pension schemes.
The Central Government Health Scheme in Delhi provides comprehensive medical care to all categories of Central Government Employees. The scheme has been extended to other cities also.
Social security for general Public
The risks of death, accident, and fire are covered by the Insurance schemes. The Life Insurance Corporation of India has many schemes for the general public. There are also public provident fund schemes
99. The instrument used to measure very low air movements in closed rooms is
A. Dry bulb thermometer
B. Wet bulb thermometer
C. Globe thermometer
D. Kata thermometer
Ans d
COOLING POWER: Still later, air temperature, humidity and air movement were considered together and expressed as “cooling power” of the air. An instrument was devised by Hill called the Kata Thermometer to measure the cooling power. A dry Kata reading of 6 and above, and a wet Kata reading of 20 and above, were regarded as indices of thermal comfort. Further researches have shown that the Kata cooling powers are also not reliable indices of comfort conditions
The Kata thermometer is now largely used as an anemometer for recording low air velocities rather than the cooling power of the air.
CORRECTED EFFECTIVE TEMPERATURE: This Index is an improvement over the Effective Temperature Index. Instead of the dry bulb temperature, the reading of the Globe Thermometer is used to allow for radiant heat. That is, the C.E.T. scales deal with all the four factors namely, air temperature, velocity, humidity and mean radiant heat. Whenever a source of radiation is present, it is preferable to take C.E.T. The C.E.T. may be readily obtained from prepared nomograms by reference to the globe thermometer temperature, the wet bulb temperature and air speed. At present, effective temperature and C.E.T. scales are widely used as indices of thermal comfort
100. Principles of Health Education include all EXCEPT
A. Participation
B. Motivation
C. Punishment
D. Reinforcements
Ans C
PRINCIPLES OF HEALTH EDUCATION
- Reinforcement: Few people can learn all that is new in a single’period. Repetition at intervals is necessary. If there is no reinforcement, there is every possibility of the individual going back to the pre - awareness stage. If the message is repeated in different ways, people are more likely to remember it.
- Participation: Participation is a key word in health education. It is based on the psychological principle of active learning. Health education should aim at encouraging people to work actively with health workers and others in identifying their own health problems and also in developing solutions and plans to work them out. Participation of family members in patient care will create opportunity for more effective, practically based health education. A high degree of participation tends to create a sense of involvement, personal acceptance and decision -making. It provides maximum feedback. The Alma - Ata Declaration states: “The people have a right and duty to participate individually and collectively in the planning and implementation of their health card’ (18). If community participation is not an integral part, health programmes are unlikely to succeed (19).
- Motivation: In every person, there ‘ a fundamental desire to learn. Awakening this desire is called motivation. There are two types of motives - primary and secondary. Primary motives (e.g. sex, hunger, survival) are driving forces initiating people into action; these motives are inborn desires. Secondary motives are based on desires created by outside forces or incentives. Some of the secondary motives are praise, love, rivalry, rewards and punishment, and recognition. In health education, motivation is an important factor; that is, the need for incentives is a first step in learning to change. The incentives may be positive (the carrot) or negative (the stick). To tell a lady, faced with the problem of overweight, to reduce her weight because she might develop cardiovascular disease or it might reduce her life span, may have little effect; but to tell her that by reducing her weight she might look more charming and beautiful, she might accept health advice. When a father promises his child a reward for getting up early everyday, he is motivating the child to inculcate a good habit. In health education, we make use of motivation to change behaviour. Motivation is contagious; one motivated person may spread motivation throughout a group. For example, men who have already had vasectomies are among the best advertisements for male sterilization
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Case-control study
C. Cohort Study
D. Randomized controlled trial
Ans B
97. The full form ICDS is
A. Intensive Child Development Scheme
B. Information Communication Development and Service
C. Integrated Child Development Services
D. Integrated Child and Adolescent Development Services
Ans C
ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services) projects which are functioning in about 5320 blocks all over the country. The principal worker in ICDS projects is the Anganwadi worker. In one ICDS “project”, there are about 100 Anganwadi workers, who are providing a package of basic health services (e.g., supplementary nutrition, immunization, health check-up, referral, nutrition and health education, and non-formal education services) to mothers and children. Their activities are guided by the Child Development Project Officer (CDPO).
98. Social Security considers three essential elements, the security of employment, security of income and the third one is
A. security of right to express oneself
B. security of right to work
C. security of right to worship
D. none of the above
Ans D
Social security is defined as that “security that society furnishes through appropriate organization, against certain risks to which its members are exposed”. The risks which social security covers in most countries are sickness, invalidity, maternity, old age and death. Social security also includes social insurance and social assistance.
Social security for Industrial workers
The social security measures for industrial workers in India are contained in the following legislations:
(1) Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
(2) Central Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
(3) Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
(4) The Family Pension Scheme, 1971
Some of these Acts have been described elsewhere in the text.
Social security for civil servants
The employees of the Central and State Government havt pension, gratuity, provident fund and family pension schemes.
The Central Government Health Scheme in Delhi provides comprehensive medical care to all categories of Central Government Employees. The scheme has been extended to other cities also.
Social security for general Public
The risks of death, accident, and fire are covered by the Insurance schemes. The Life Insurance Corporation of India has many schemes for the general public. There are also public provident fund schemes
99. The instrument used to measure very low air movements in closed rooms is
A. Dry bulb thermometer
B. Wet bulb thermometer
C. Globe thermometer
D. Kata thermometer
Ans d
COOLING POWER: Still later, air temperature, humidity and air movement were considered together and expressed as “cooling power” of the air. An instrument was devised by Hill called the Kata Thermometer to measure the cooling power. A dry Kata reading of 6 and above, and a wet Kata reading of 20 and above, were regarded as indices of thermal comfort. Further researches have shown that the Kata cooling powers are also not reliable indices of comfort conditions
The Kata thermometer is now largely used as an anemometer for recording low air velocities rather than the cooling power of the air.
CORRECTED EFFECTIVE TEMPERATURE: This Index is an improvement over the Effective Temperature Index. Instead of the dry bulb temperature, the reading of the Globe Thermometer is used to allow for radiant heat. That is, the C.E.T. scales deal with all the four factors namely, air temperature, velocity, humidity and mean radiant heat. Whenever a source of radiation is present, it is preferable to take C.E.T. The C.E.T. may be readily obtained from prepared nomograms by reference to the globe thermometer temperature, the wet bulb temperature and air speed. At present, effective temperature and C.E.T. scales are widely used as indices of thermal comfort
100. Principles of Health Education include all EXCEPT
A. Participation
B. Motivation
C. Punishment
D. Reinforcements
Ans C
PRINCIPLES OF HEALTH EDUCATION
- Reinforcement: Few people can learn all that is new in a single’period. Repetition at intervals is necessary. If there is no reinforcement, there is every possibility of the individual going back to the pre - awareness stage. If the message is repeated in different ways, people are more likely to remember it.
- Participation: Participation is a key word in health education. It is based on the psychological principle of active learning. Health education should aim at encouraging people to work actively with health workers and others in identifying their own health problems and also in developing solutions and plans to work them out. Participation of family members in patient care will create opportunity for more effective, practically based health education. A high degree of participation tends to create a sense of involvement, personal acceptance and decision -making. It provides maximum feedback. The Alma - Ata Declaration states: “The people have a right and duty to participate individually and collectively in the planning and implementation of their health card’ (18). If community participation is not an integral part, health programmes are unlikely to succeed (19).
- Motivation: In every person, there ‘ a fundamental desire to learn. Awakening this desire is called motivation. There are two types of motives - primary and secondary. Primary motives (e.g. sex, hunger, survival) are driving forces initiating people into action; these motives are inborn desires. Secondary motives are based on desires created by outside forces or incentives. Some of the secondary motives are praise, love, rivalry, rewards and punishment, and recognition. In health education, motivation is an important factor; that is, the need for incentives is a first step in learning to change. The incentives may be positive (the carrot) or negative (the stick). To tell a lady, faced with the problem of overweight, to reduce her weight because she might develop cardiovascular disease or it might reduce her life span, may have little effect; but to tell her that by reducing her weight she might look more charming and beautiful, she might accept health advice. When a father promises his child a reward for getting up early everyday, he is motivating the child to inculcate a good habit. In health education, we make use of motivation to change behaviour. Motivation is contagious; one motivated person may spread motivation throughout a group. For example, men who have already had vasectomies are among the best advertisements for male sterilization
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