151. False statement regarding pomphoiyx is (APPG – 2013)
A type of exogenous eczema
B sago grain (deep seated) vesicles
C Pruritic
D Commonly involves palms and soles
Ans C, Dyshidrosis (also known as "acute vesiculobullous hand eczema," "cheiropompholyx,"[2] "dyshidrotic eczema,"[2] "pompholyx,"[2] and "podopompholyx"[2]) is a skin condition that is characterized by small blisters on the hands or feet. It is an acute, chronic, or recurrent dermatosis of the fingers, palms, and soles, characterized by a sudden onset of many deep-seated pruritic, clear vesicles; later, scaling, fissures and lichenification occur. Recurrence is common and for many can be chronic.
. However, many cases of eczema are diagnosed as garden-variety atopic eczema without further investigation, so it is possible that this figure is misleading.
This condition is not contagious to others, but the compromised integument can increase susceptibility to infection, and the accompanying itching can be a source of psychological duress.
The name comes from the word "dyshidrotic," meaning "bad sweating," which was once believed to be the cause, but this association is unproven; there are many cases present that have no history of excessive sweating. There are many different factors that may trigger the outbreak of dyshidrosis such as allergens, physical and/or mental stress, or seasonal changes.
Small blisters with the following characteristics:
• Blisters are very small (3 mm or less in diameter)They appear on the tips and sides of the fingers, toes, palms, and soles.
• Blisters are opaque and deep-seated; they are either flush with the skin or slightly elevated and do not break easily. Eventually, small blisters come together and form large blisters.
• Blisters may itch, cause pain, or produce no symptoms at all. They worsen after contact with soap, water, or irritating substances.
• Scratching blisters breaks them, releasing the fluid inside, causing the skin to crust and eventually crack. This cracking is painful as well as unsightly and often takes weeks, or even months to heal. The skin is dry and scaly during this period.
• Fluid from the blisters is serum that accumulates between the irritated skin cells. It is not sweat as was previously thought.
• In some cases, as the blistering takes place in the palms or finger, lymph node swelling may accompany the outbreak. This is characterised by tingling feeling in the forearm and bumps present in the arm pits.
Nails on affected fingers, or toes, may take on a pitted appearance.
The content of the deep-seated, sago-grain-like blisters is pure serum and not sweat
152. Zidovudine, an antiretroviral agent is
A Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
B Non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C Nucleotide analogue
D Protease inhibitor
Ans A, Zidovudine (INN) or azidothymidine (AZT) (also called ZDV) is a nucleoside analog reverse-transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
153. Acetic acid test is used to detect the subclinical genital infection by (APPG – 2013)
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Donovanosis
D. Molluscum contagiosum
Ans A, The application of 3%–5% acetic acid, which causes skin color to turn white, has been used by some providers to detect HPV-infected genital mucosa. However, acetic acid application is not a specific test for HPV infection. Therefore, the routine use of this procedure for screening to detect mucosal changes attributed to HPV infection is not recommended.
A type of exogenous eczema
B sago grain (deep seated) vesicles
C Pruritic
D Commonly involves palms and soles
Ans C, Dyshidrosis (also known as "acute vesiculobullous hand eczema," "cheiropompholyx,"[2] "dyshidrotic eczema,"[2] "pompholyx,"[2] and "podopompholyx"[2]) is a skin condition that is characterized by small blisters on the hands or feet. It is an acute, chronic, or recurrent dermatosis of the fingers, palms, and soles, characterized by a sudden onset of many deep-seated pruritic, clear vesicles; later, scaling, fissures and lichenification occur. Recurrence is common and for many can be chronic.
. However, many cases of eczema are diagnosed as garden-variety atopic eczema without further investigation, so it is possible that this figure is misleading.
This condition is not contagious to others, but the compromised integument can increase susceptibility to infection, and the accompanying itching can be a source of psychological duress.
The name comes from the word "dyshidrotic," meaning "bad sweating," which was once believed to be the cause, but this association is unproven; there are many cases present that have no history of excessive sweating. There are many different factors that may trigger the outbreak of dyshidrosis such as allergens, physical and/or mental stress, or seasonal changes.
Small blisters with the following characteristics:
• Blisters are very small (3 mm or less in diameter)They appear on the tips and sides of the fingers, toes, palms, and soles.
• Blisters are opaque and deep-seated; they are either flush with the skin or slightly elevated and do not break easily. Eventually, small blisters come together and form large blisters.
• Blisters may itch, cause pain, or produce no symptoms at all. They worsen after contact with soap, water, or irritating substances.
• Scratching blisters breaks them, releasing the fluid inside, causing the skin to crust and eventually crack. This cracking is painful as well as unsightly and often takes weeks, or even months to heal. The skin is dry and scaly during this period.
• Fluid from the blisters is serum that accumulates between the irritated skin cells. It is not sweat as was previously thought.
• In some cases, as the blistering takes place in the palms or finger, lymph node swelling may accompany the outbreak. This is characterised by tingling feeling in the forearm and bumps present in the arm pits.
Nails on affected fingers, or toes, may take on a pitted appearance.
The content of the deep-seated, sago-grain-like blisters is pure serum and not sweat
152. Zidovudine, an antiretroviral agent is
A Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
B Non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C Nucleotide analogue
D Protease inhibitor
Ans A, Zidovudine (INN) or azidothymidine (AZT) (also called ZDV) is a nucleoside analog reverse-transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
153. Acetic acid test is used to detect the subclinical genital infection by (APPG – 2013)
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Donovanosis
D. Molluscum contagiosum
Ans A, The application of 3%–5% acetic acid, which causes skin color to turn white, has been used by some providers to detect HPV-infected genital mucosa. However, acetic acid application is not a specific test for HPV infection. Therefore, the routine use of this procedure for screening to detect mucosal changes attributed to HPV infection is not recommended.
154. Groove sign of Greenblat due to femoral and inguinal lymph node enlargement is a feature of
A. chancroid
B. primary chancre
C. donovanosis
D. lymphogranuloma venereum
Ans D
The "sign of groove" was first described by Greenblatt in 1953 as a characteristic sign in LGV to denote the sausage shaped swellings of the inguinal lymph NODE
155. Confabulation is seen in
A. Capgras syndrome
B. Othello syndrome
C. Fregoli syndrome
D. Korsakoff's syndrome
Ans d
156. Thought broadcasting is
A. Thoughts of being persecuted
B. Thoughts being projected into the environment
C. Thoughts being removed from one's mind
D. Thoughts being implanted in one's mind
Ans B
During thought broadcasting people describe their thoughts being broadcast, or available, to others. This is a passive process and not something the person can control. It is different from people being able to read their thoughts in that when thoughts are being broadcast they are available to anybody. To illustrate this, thought broadcast could be compared to radio transmitting, as opposed to telepathy which is more like a telephone connection. Note that there is no implication that their thoughts are being heard.
Thought broadcasting is a positive (affirmative) symptom of schizophrenia in the diagnostic process undertaken by mental health professionals.
Thought broadcasting has been suggested as one of the so-called "first rank symptoms" (Schneider's first-rank symptoms) believed to distinguish schizophrenia from other psychotic disorders.
157. The color 'red' (denoting increase in Doppler shift frequency) in color Doppler examination denotes
A. arterial flow
B. flow towards ultrasound probe
C. venous flow
D. no flow
Ans b
In color Doppler, a form of PW Doppler, a color code is used to depict flow toward (red) and away (blue) from the transducer; lighter and darker shades of red and blue, respectively, denote relatively faster and slower velocitie
158. Which component of radiographic contrast media provides most of the usefUl radio-opacity ?
A. Only iodine
B. Only sodium
C. Diatriazoate
D. Iodine and sodium
IODINE COMPOUNDS AS CONTRAST AGENTS
Almost all radiological examinations performed with injected contrast agents involve the administration of iodine-containing compounds.
The use of iodine compounds was initially related to low toxicity and excellent radio-opacity rather than physical considerations. However, it was also fortunate that iodine compounds possess physical properties which make them better contrast agents than compounds with higher atomic number.
159. Stereotactic radiosurgery is commonly used to treat
A. Glioblastoma multiforme
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Arteriovenous malformations in brain
D. Tumors of spinal cord
Ans A
Stereotactic radiosurgery is often used to treat these brain tumors:
• Acoustic neuroma
• Glioma/glioblastoma
• Metastatic brain tumors
• Meningioma
• Pituitary tumors
160. The radiation detecting system used in Gamma Camera is
A. Geiger — Muller counter
B. Scintillation detector,
C. De nsitometer
D. Solid state detector
Ans B
A gamma camera, also called a scintillation camera or Anger camera, is a device used to image gamma radiation emitting radioisotopes, a technique known as scintigraphy. The applications of scintigraphy include early drug development and nuclear medical imaging to view and analyse images of the human body or the distribution of medically injected, inhaled, or ingested radionuclides emitting gamma rays.
A gamma probe is a handheld device used with a Geiger-Muller tube or scintillation counter, for intraoperative use following interstitial injection of a radionuclide, to locate regional lymph nodes by their radioactivity.[1] It is used primarily for sentinel lymph node mapping and parathyroid surgery
161. Which of the following does NOT require bowel preparation before contrast study ?
A. Colonic growth
B. Colonic polyps
C. Stricture of the colon
D. Megacolon
Ans D
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity to any of the ingredients, congestive cardiac failure, gastric retention, gastrointestinal ulceration, toxic colitis, toxic megacolon, ileus, nausea and vomiting, acute sur- gical abdominal conditions such as acute appendicitis and gastrointestinal obstruction or perforation. In patients with severely reduced renal function, accumulation of magnesium in plasma may occur; another preparation should be used in such cases.
Onlinembbs com Dr Murali Bharadwaz Live classes
Online Live interactive NEET PG MD Entrance Coaching
29 Week Live online interactive class
Everyday 5:00 -8:30 pm
500 hours of Live interactive lecture
2000 pages preparatory Lecture notes as .pdf
Participate online from anywhere across globe
Review missed lectures in Video Library
25 Full scale online NEET PG Grand tests and Video discussion on Sundays
25 Subjectwise NEET PG Grand tests and Video discussion on Saturdays
Call today to join 9000868356 ,9505948291
This APPG 2013 Live discussion is available at you tube channel of onlinembbs
www dot youtube dot com slash onlinembbs
162. Treatment for Carcinoid of appendix > 2 cm in size is.
A. right hemicolectomy
B. ileocaecal resection
C. ileo-transverse bypass
D. appendectomy
Ans a
In patients with tumors less than 1 cm located in the appendix, appendectomy is the treatment of choice. More extensive surgery is indicated for tumors larger than 2 cm, lymphatic invasion, lymph node involvement, mesoappendix infiltration, positive resection margins, and cellular pleomorphism with a high mitotic index. For tumors larger than 2 cm, accepted treatment has been hemicolectomy; however, a survival advantage over simple appendectomy has not been demonstrated.[61] Given the relatively low malignant potential of appendiceal carcinoids, some have suggested simple appendectomy for tumors more than 2 cm diameter without affecting overall survival
163. The most common cause of Pancreatic Ascites is
A. pancreatic duct disruption
B. acute pancreatitis
C. chronic pancreatitis
D. mucoviscidosis
Ans C
Approximately 95% of cases of pancreatic ascites are associated with chronic pancreatitis. The leak manifests upstream of a stricture or stone, and the point of least resistance for the pancreatic juice to flow is into the belly cavity rather than the duodenum, where it belongs. There are several reported cases of posttraumatic pancreatic ascites, where the tail of the pancreas has been sheared off after a motor vehicle accident, bicycle handlebar injury, or football helmet injury. Ascites can occur as a result of knife or gun wounds. It can occasionally occur after surgery for splenectomy or left nephrectomy, where the tail of the pancreas is damaged and the duct leaks juice into the belly cavity.
164. Annular Pancreas is usually treated by
A. Duodeno duodenostomy -
B. Division of pancreas
C. Gastrojejunostomy
D. Administration of pancreatic enzyme preparations
Ans A
The most common surgical procedure to treat an annular pancreas is called a duodenoduodenostomy
165. Pringle manoeuvre is used in the management of
A. Splenic injuries
B. Liver injuries
C. Pancreatic injuries
D. Duodenal injuries
Ans B
The Pringle manoeuvre is a surgical manoeuvre used in some abdominal operations. A large haemostat is used to clamp the hepatoduodenal ligament interrupting the flow of blood through the hepatic artery and the portal vein and thus helping to control bleeding from the liver.
Should bleeding though continue, it is likely that the inferior vena cava or the hepatic vein were also traumatised.[1] Also, if bleeding did continue, a variation in arterial blood flow may be present
166. The definitive treatment of a patient with Caroli's disease whose liver function is well preserved is
A. segmental hepatectomy
B. iliary drainage
C. antibiotics
D. liver transplantation
Ans A
The treatment depends on clinical features and the location of the biliary abnormality. When the disease is localized to one hepatic lobe, hepatectomy relieves symptoms and appears to remove the risk of malignancy.[12] There is good evidence that malignancy complicates Caroli disease in approximately 7% of cases.[12]
Antibiotics are used to treat the inflammation of the bile duct, and ursodeoxycholic acid for hepatolithiasis.[7] Ursodiol is given to treat cholelithiasis. In diffuse cases of Caroli disease, treatment options include conservative or endoscopic therapy, internal biliary bypass procedures and liver transplantation in carefully selected cases.[12] Surgical resection has been used successfully in patients with monolobar disease.[7] An orthotopic liver transplant is another option, used only when antibiotics have no effect, in combination with recurring cholangitis. With a liver transplant, cholangiocarcinoma is usually avoided in the long run.[
167. On rectal examination, in which of the following lesions the affected seminal vesicle is found to be nodular ?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Gonorrhoeal,
C. Syphilis
D. Lymphogranuloma venereum
Ans A
168. Retractile Testis is best treated by
A. Orchiopexy
B. Orchidectomy.
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin
D. Reassurance
Ans D
Treatment isn't necessary as long as the retractile testicles stay put inside the scrotum most of the time before the onset of puberty
A. chancroid
B. primary chancre
C. donovanosis
D. lymphogranuloma venereum
Ans D
The "sign of groove" was first described by Greenblatt in 1953 as a characteristic sign in LGV to denote the sausage shaped swellings of the inguinal lymph NODE
155. Confabulation is seen in
A. Capgras syndrome
B. Othello syndrome
C. Fregoli syndrome
D. Korsakoff's syndrome
Ans d
156. Thought broadcasting is
A. Thoughts of being persecuted
B. Thoughts being projected into the environment
C. Thoughts being removed from one's mind
D. Thoughts being implanted in one's mind
Ans B
During thought broadcasting people describe their thoughts being broadcast, or available, to others. This is a passive process and not something the person can control. It is different from people being able to read their thoughts in that when thoughts are being broadcast they are available to anybody. To illustrate this, thought broadcast could be compared to radio transmitting, as opposed to telepathy which is more like a telephone connection. Note that there is no implication that their thoughts are being heard.
Thought broadcasting is a positive (affirmative) symptom of schizophrenia in the diagnostic process undertaken by mental health professionals.
Thought broadcasting has been suggested as one of the so-called "first rank symptoms" (Schneider's first-rank symptoms) believed to distinguish schizophrenia from other psychotic disorders.
157. The color 'red' (denoting increase in Doppler shift frequency) in color Doppler examination denotes
A. arterial flow
B. flow towards ultrasound probe
C. venous flow
D. no flow
Ans b
In color Doppler, a form of PW Doppler, a color code is used to depict flow toward (red) and away (blue) from the transducer; lighter and darker shades of red and blue, respectively, denote relatively faster and slower velocitie
158. Which component of radiographic contrast media provides most of the usefUl radio-opacity ?
A. Only iodine
B. Only sodium
C. Diatriazoate
D. Iodine and sodium
IODINE COMPOUNDS AS CONTRAST AGENTS
Almost all radiological examinations performed with injected contrast agents involve the administration of iodine-containing compounds.
The use of iodine compounds was initially related to low toxicity and excellent radio-opacity rather than physical considerations. However, it was also fortunate that iodine compounds possess physical properties which make them better contrast agents than compounds with higher atomic number.
159. Stereotactic radiosurgery is commonly used to treat
A. Glioblastoma multiforme
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Arteriovenous malformations in brain
D. Tumors of spinal cord
Ans A
Stereotactic radiosurgery is often used to treat these brain tumors:
• Acoustic neuroma
• Glioma/glioblastoma
• Metastatic brain tumors
• Meningioma
• Pituitary tumors
160. The radiation detecting system used in Gamma Camera is
A. Geiger — Muller counter
B. Scintillation detector,
C. De nsitometer
D. Solid state detector
Ans B
A gamma camera, also called a scintillation camera or Anger camera, is a device used to image gamma radiation emitting radioisotopes, a technique known as scintigraphy. The applications of scintigraphy include early drug development and nuclear medical imaging to view and analyse images of the human body or the distribution of medically injected, inhaled, or ingested radionuclides emitting gamma rays.
A gamma probe is a handheld device used with a Geiger-Muller tube or scintillation counter, for intraoperative use following interstitial injection of a radionuclide, to locate regional lymph nodes by their radioactivity.[1] It is used primarily for sentinel lymph node mapping and parathyroid surgery
161. Which of the following does NOT require bowel preparation before contrast study ?
A. Colonic growth
B. Colonic polyps
C. Stricture of the colon
D. Megacolon
Ans D
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity to any of the ingredients, congestive cardiac failure, gastric retention, gastrointestinal ulceration, toxic colitis, toxic megacolon, ileus, nausea and vomiting, acute sur- gical abdominal conditions such as acute appendicitis and gastrointestinal obstruction or perforation. In patients with severely reduced renal function, accumulation of magnesium in plasma may occur; another preparation should be used in such cases.
Onlinembbs com Dr Murali Bharadwaz Live classes
Online Live interactive NEET PG MD Entrance Coaching
29 Week Live online interactive class
Everyday 5:00 -8:30 pm
500 hours of Live interactive lecture
2000 pages preparatory Lecture notes as .pdf
Participate online from anywhere across globe
Review missed lectures in Video Library
25 Full scale online NEET PG Grand tests and Video discussion on Sundays
25 Subjectwise NEET PG Grand tests and Video discussion on Saturdays
Call today to join 9000868356 ,9505948291
This APPG 2013 Live discussion is available at you tube channel of onlinembbs
www dot youtube dot com slash onlinembbs
162. Treatment for Carcinoid of appendix > 2 cm in size is.
A. right hemicolectomy
B. ileocaecal resection
C. ileo-transverse bypass
D. appendectomy
Ans a
In patients with tumors less than 1 cm located in the appendix, appendectomy is the treatment of choice. More extensive surgery is indicated for tumors larger than 2 cm, lymphatic invasion, lymph node involvement, mesoappendix infiltration, positive resection margins, and cellular pleomorphism with a high mitotic index. For tumors larger than 2 cm, accepted treatment has been hemicolectomy; however, a survival advantage over simple appendectomy has not been demonstrated.[61] Given the relatively low malignant potential of appendiceal carcinoids, some have suggested simple appendectomy for tumors more than 2 cm diameter without affecting overall survival
163. The most common cause of Pancreatic Ascites is
A. pancreatic duct disruption
B. acute pancreatitis
C. chronic pancreatitis
D. mucoviscidosis
Ans C
Approximately 95% of cases of pancreatic ascites are associated with chronic pancreatitis. The leak manifests upstream of a stricture or stone, and the point of least resistance for the pancreatic juice to flow is into the belly cavity rather than the duodenum, where it belongs. There are several reported cases of posttraumatic pancreatic ascites, where the tail of the pancreas has been sheared off after a motor vehicle accident, bicycle handlebar injury, or football helmet injury. Ascites can occur as a result of knife or gun wounds. It can occasionally occur after surgery for splenectomy or left nephrectomy, where the tail of the pancreas is damaged and the duct leaks juice into the belly cavity.
164. Annular Pancreas is usually treated by
A. Duodeno duodenostomy -
B. Division of pancreas
C. Gastrojejunostomy
D. Administration of pancreatic enzyme preparations
Ans A
The most common surgical procedure to treat an annular pancreas is called a duodenoduodenostomy
165. Pringle manoeuvre is used in the management of
A. Splenic injuries
B. Liver injuries
C. Pancreatic injuries
D. Duodenal injuries
Ans B
The Pringle manoeuvre is a surgical manoeuvre used in some abdominal operations. A large haemostat is used to clamp the hepatoduodenal ligament interrupting the flow of blood through the hepatic artery and the portal vein and thus helping to control bleeding from the liver.
Should bleeding though continue, it is likely that the inferior vena cava or the hepatic vein were also traumatised.[1] Also, if bleeding did continue, a variation in arterial blood flow may be present
166. The definitive treatment of a patient with Caroli's disease whose liver function is well preserved is
A. segmental hepatectomy
B. iliary drainage
C. antibiotics
D. liver transplantation
Ans A
The treatment depends on clinical features and the location of the biliary abnormality. When the disease is localized to one hepatic lobe, hepatectomy relieves symptoms and appears to remove the risk of malignancy.[12] There is good evidence that malignancy complicates Caroli disease in approximately 7% of cases.[12]
Antibiotics are used to treat the inflammation of the bile duct, and ursodeoxycholic acid for hepatolithiasis.[7] Ursodiol is given to treat cholelithiasis. In diffuse cases of Caroli disease, treatment options include conservative or endoscopic therapy, internal biliary bypass procedures and liver transplantation in carefully selected cases.[12] Surgical resection has been used successfully in patients with monolobar disease.[7] An orthotopic liver transplant is another option, used only when antibiotics have no effect, in combination with recurring cholangitis. With a liver transplant, cholangiocarcinoma is usually avoided in the long run.[
167. On rectal examination, in which of the following lesions the affected seminal vesicle is found to be nodular ?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Gonorrhoeal,
C. Syphilis
D. Lymphogranuloma venereum
Ans A
168. Retractile Testis is best treated by
A. Orchiopexy
B. Orchidectomy.
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin
D. Reassurance
Ans D
Treatment isn't necessary as long as the retractile testicles stay put inside the scrotum most of the time before the onset of puberty
169. Chordee is most often seen in
A. Peyronie's disease
B. Epispadias
C. Hypospadias
D. Meatal Stenosis
Ans C
Chordee is a condition in which the head of the penis curves downward or upward, at the junction of the head and shaft of the penis. The curvature is usually most obvious during erection, but resistance to straightening is often apparent in the flaccid state as well. In many cases but not all, chordee is associated with hypospadias. This is not the same condition as Peyronie's disease, which involves curvature of the shaft of the penis most commonly due to injury during adult life.
170. The most widely used investigation for Lower Limb Venous insufficiency is
A. varicography
B. venography
C. doppler examination
D. duplex ultrasound imaging
Ans D
Duplex ultrasonography is the study of choice for the evaluation of venous insufficiency syndromes. Color-flow duplex imaging uses the Doppler information to color code the 2-dimensional sonogram. On the image, red indicates flow in one direction (relative to the transducer), and blue indicates flow in the other direction.[16] On newer machines, the shade of the color may reflect the flow velocity (in the Doppler mode) or the flow volume (in the power Doppler mode).
When used to evaluate patterns of venous reflux, ultrasonography is both sensitive and specific. Ultrasonographic reflux mapping is essential for the evaluation of peripheral venous insufficiency syndrome
171. Myoglobinuria is most common in
A. chemical burns
B. electrical burns
C. flame burns
D. radiation burns
Ans B
High-voltage injuries often produce severe burns and blunt trauma. Patients are at high risk of myoglobinuria and renal failure. Burns are often ultimately much worse than they initially appear in the ED.
172. The most commonly used formula for Burns resuscitation is
A. Muir and Barclay's formula
B. Brooke's hospital formula
C. Parkland formula
D. Lund and Browder's formula
Ans C
173. The commonest site of a peripheral aneurysm is
A. Femoral artery
B. Popiliteal artery
C. Subclavian artery
D. Carotid artery
Ans B
True aneurysms of the popliteal artery are the most common peripheral arterial ANEURYSMS
A. Peyronie's disease
B. Epispadias
C. Hypospadias
D. Meatal Stenosis
Ans C
Chordee is a condition in which the head of the penis curves downward or upward, at the junction of the head and shaft of the penis. The curvature is usually most obvious during erection, but resistance to straightening is often apparent in the flaccid state as well. In many cases but not all, chordee is associated with hypospadias. This is not the same condition as Peyronie's disease, which involves curvature of the shaft of the penis most commonly due to injury during adult life.
170. The most widely used investigation for Lower Limb Venous insufficiency is
A. varicography
B. venography
C. doppler examination
D. duplex ultrasound imaging
Ans D
Duplex ultrasonography is the study of choice for the evaluation of venous insufficiency syndromes. Color-flow duplex imaging uses the Doppler information to color code the 2-dimensional sonogram. On the image, red indicates flow in one direction (relative to the transducer), and blue indicates flow in the other direction.[16] On newer machines, the shade of the color may reflect the flow velocity (in the Doppler mode) or the flow volume (in the power Doppler mode).
When used to evaluate patterns of venous reflux, ultrasonography is both sensitive and specific. Ultrasonographic reflux mapping is essential for the evaluation of peripheral venous insufficiency syndrome
171. Myoglobinuria is most common in
A. chemical burns
B. electrical burns
C. flame burns
D. radiation burns
Ans B
High-voltage injuries often produce severe burns and blunt trauma. Patients are at high risk of myoglobinuria and renal failure. Burns are often ultimately much worse than they initially appear in the ED.
172. The most commonly used formula for Burns resuscitation is
A. Muir and Barclay's formula
B. Brooke's hospital formula
C. Parkland formula
D. Lund and Browder's formula
Ans C
173. The commonest site of a peripheral aneurysm is
A. Femoral artery
B. Popiliteal artery
C. Subclavian artery
D. Carotid artery
Ans B
True aneurysms of the popliteal artery are the most common peripheral arterial ANEURYSMS
174. Which of the following malignancies of the breast is often bilateral ?
A. Infiltrating Duct Carcinoma
B. Lobular Carcinoma
C. Inflammatory Carcinoma
D. Colloid Carcinoma
Ans B
175. Limb Compartment syndrome is best treated by
A. analgesics
B. anticoagulants
C. fasciotomy
D. muscle transposition.
Ans C
Acute compartment syndrome is a medical emergency requiring immediate surgical treatment, known as a fasciotomy
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